If he called them gods (ε εκεινους ειπεν θεους). Condition of first class, assumed as true. The conclusion (verse John 10:36) is υμεις λεγετε; ( Do ye say? ). As Jews (and rabbis) they are shut out from charging Jesus with blasphemy because of this usage in the O.T. It is a complete ad hominem argument. To be sure, it is in Psalm 82:6 a lower use of the term θεος, but Jesus did not call himself "Son of Jahweh," but "υιος θεου" which can mean only "Son of Elohim." It must not be argued, as some modern men do, that Jesus thus disclaims his own deity. He does nothing of the kind. He is simply stopping the mouths of the rabbis from the charge of blasphemy and he does it effectually. The sentence is quite involved, but can be cleared up.

To whom the word of God came (προς ους ο λογος του θεου εγενετο). The relative points to εκεινους, before. These judges had no other claim to the term θεο (elohim).

And the scripture cannot be broken (κα ου δυνατα λυθηνα η γραφη). A parenthesis that drives home the pertinency of the appeal, one that the Pharisees had to accept. Λυθηνα is first aorist passive infinitive of λυω, to loosen, to break.